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The production line of a chip manufacturing unit wants to simulate the probability of a chip being manufactured defective. Common sense says that the probability of a chip being defective does not depend on whether or not the previous chip was defective. Hence. the probability distribution. appropriate for the situation. is l

Auniform

Bnormal

Cbinomial

Dtriangular

Akilesh Kharvi ? Dec 8 '2016 at 22:15

Answer: binomial

Explanation:

probability of a chip being defective does not depend on whether or not the previous chip was defective.

the individual trials are independent of each other so it is binomial distribution

For the Binomial model to be
applied the following four criteria must be satisfied
• the trial is carried out a fixed number of times n.
• the outcomes of each trial can be classified into two ‘types’ conveniently named ‘success’ or ‘failure’.
• the probability p of success remains constant for each trial.
• the individual trials are independent of each other.

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(PVQ)^(P->R)^(q->R)is equivalent to

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(PVQ)^(P->R)^(q->R)is equivalent to

AP

Bq

CR

DTrue = T.

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P, Q, R are three languages. PQ = R and P and R are regular.

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P, Q, R are three languages. PQ = R and P and R are regular. This implies

AQ has to be regular

BQ cannot be regular

CQ need not be regular

DQ cannot be a CFL

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Which of the following respectively represent commutative

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Which of the following respectively represent commutative law, associative law and distributive law ?

AI, II, III

BIII, I, II

CIII, II, I

DI, III, II

Akilesh Kharvi ? Dec 8 '2016 at 19:23

Answer: III, I, II

Explanation:

1. a+b= b+a Commutative Law of Addition
2. (a + b)+c =a+ (b + c) Associative Law of Addition 
3. a(b + c) = a • b+a • c Distributive Law 
4. ab= ba Commutative Law of Multiplication 
5. (ab)c = a(bc) Associative Law of Multiplication 
6. a+0 = 0 +a =a Zero Property 

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The proposition p ^ ( ~ p V q ) is

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The proposition p ^ ( ~ p V q ) is

Aa tautology

Ba contradiction

Clogically equivalent to p ^ q

Dlogically equivalent to q

Nithin K ? Dec 7 '2016 at 21:52

Answer: logically equivalent to p ^ q

Explanation:

p^(~pV q)
According to distributive law it is equivalent to,
(p^~p)V (p^q)
0V (p^q)
p^q
so, it is logically equivalent to p ^ q.

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